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Exam Code: FCESP
Exam Name: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Email Security Professional)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?
A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent
Mode.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the recommended procedure to identify emails encoded in a specific charset?
A. Configure a Dictionary profile entry and associate it to the content profile section Content
Monitor and Filtering.
B. Create a banned word entry in an Antispam profile.
C. Charset encoding cannot be detected.
D. Enable Heuristic Scanning in an Antivirus profile.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following FortiMail profile types apply to IP-based policies only?
A. Session profile
B. Content profile
C. IP pool
D. Antispam profile
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which of the following back-end servers can NOT be used to provide Recipient Verification?
A. LDAP servers
B. POP3 servers
C. RADIUS servers
D. SMTP servers
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 How can a FortiMail administrator view or search archived emails?
A. through POP3, IMAP or Web-based manager
B. through POP3 and IMAP
C. through Webmail only
D. through Web-based manager only
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true regarding Session-based antispam techniques?
A. The entire mail content is inspected.
B. They are enabled in the session profile only.
C. SMTP commands, sender domain and IP address are checked.
D. They are checked after application-based antispam techniques.
Answer: C

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7. A FortiMail administrator must enforce the following company policy:
1. All emails containing executable attachments must be detected.
2. This detection must be file name independent. For example, if a user renames an executable
from .exe to .txt, the file should still be detected.
Which FortiMail inspection technique should the administrator apply?
A. Content profile > Attachment filtering rule to block all executable extensions
B. Content profile > File Type filtering rule to block all executable files
C. Antispam profile > Banned Word entry to block all executable files
D. Content profile > Content Monitor entry to block all executable files
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-110
Exam Name: EXIN (Foundation Bridge Exam IT Service Management ISO/IEC 20000)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. the Service Level Plans
B. the Service Management Plans
C. the SLAs with the other parties
D. the SLAs with the customers
Answer: D

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NO.2 When improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure ongoing
compliance with the service providerWhen improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to
be considered to ensure on-going compliance with the service provider? corporate objectives /
requirements?
A. A competitor process managementsystemA competitor? process management system
B. Any standards defined by the company itself
C. The budget available to the Personnel Department
D. The time to update the process documentation
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the definition of quality according to ISO 9000?
A. Quality is when all features of a service which are agreed with the customer are being delivered to the
customer.
B. Quality is when the expectations from the customer to a certain service or product are being delivered
to the customer.
C. Quality is when the requirements and expectations of all stakeholders involved in the product lifecycle
are being fulfilled.
D. Quality is when the agreed service levels of a specific and defined service are met during morethen six
subsequent periods.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Service
Management System?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement.
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions.
C. Review the Service Management System at least annually.
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered
certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it
is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-111
Exam Name: EXIN (Green IT Citizen)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which puts IT in an excellent position to contribute to a sustainable world?
A.IT is not a big consumer of electricity.
B.IT does not create a lot of waste.
C.IT can help other industries to work more efficiently.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is environmental responsibility about?
A.Protecting the health, balance and diversity of human and natural resources
B.The need to consider the well being of the environment
C.Both
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does influence the cost of electricity?
1. The cost of fuel and capital
2. The cost of transmission and local distribution
3. Regulation
A.All of the above
B.only 1
C.only 1 and 2
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does sustainable development mean.?
A.To create a balance between the demand for timber and the maintenance of the health and biodiversity
of the forests
B.To make use of renewable energy in order to reduce greenhouse gas effects
C.To meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of the future generations to meet
their own needs
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which IT alternative(s) can help cut down travel expenses?
A.Electronics documents
B.Telepresence
C.Virtualization
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-405
Exam Name: EMC (EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP))
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Total Q&A: 229 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Given the following architecture:
To disable full-text search for end users of Webtop, on which computer should you update the
dfc.properties file?
A. server1 only
B. app1 only
C. both server1 and local1
D. both app1 and local1
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which DFC interface provides a getCheckoutDirectory() method that returns the local checkout
directory?
A. IDfClient
B. IDfClientX
C. IDfSession
D. IDfClientRegistry
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the object model?
A. dmr_content is not a sub-type of dm_sysobject although sysobject contents are stored as dmr_content
objects.
B. dm_acl objects are stored in the System cabinet.
C. Not all sysobjects can have associated permissions.
D. Virtual documents are objects of type dm_relation that describe a parent/child relationship between
objects.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which interface can be used when creating repository objects that have content?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfDocument
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfContentObject
Answer: B

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NO.5 A TBO has been created for the custom object type called my_loan_application. If the following
statement is executed in a Webtop custom component, where is the TBO executed?
IDfSysObject loanApp = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject("my_loan_application");
A. The TBO executes on the client browser's JVM.
B. The TBO executes on the Global Registry computer.
C. The TBO executes on the application server JVM.
D. The TBO execuctes on the Content Server JVM.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about Trusted Content Services (TCS)?
A. TCS is not required to create ApplicationPermission entries.
B. TCS is not required to evaluate ApplicationPermission entries.
C. TCS is not required to delete ApplicationPermission entries.
D. TCS validates and enforces application permissions at the server level.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true about Documentum Web Services Framework (WSF)?
A. All business objects can be exposed as Services using WSF.
B. Currently WSF does not support secured SOAP transfer.
C. WSF does not require UDDI to discover Web services.
D. Currently WSF only supports J2EE clients.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the <Exhibit> button.
Which interface is missing in the diagram?
A. IDfFolder
B. IDfCabinet
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfNonPersistentObject
Answer: C

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NO.9 How should you deploy a TBO to the respository?
A. Using IDfClient.newModule() only
B. Using Documentum Application Installer only
C. Using both Documentum Application Installer and IDfClient.newModule()
D. Using Documentum Application Installer, IDfClient.newModule() and IDfClient.newService()
Answer: B

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NO.10 add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
D. 1.create a new user as a consumer
2. designate the user as a registry user
3. encrypt the password
4. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
Answer: C

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3. You have a working registered table called "CompanyList" with one string column called
"CompanyName" with one row value "EMC."
What is the output of the following statements?
A. null
B. EMC
C. CompanyName
D. A DfException is thrown.
Answer: D

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4. Which statement is true?
A. You use the IDfClient.getQuery method to obtain an IDfQuery object.
B. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfCollection.
C. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfEnumeration.
D. The execute method of an IDfQuery object only requires the repository name as a parameter.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement is true?
A. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from the current session.
B. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the current user.
C. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the super user.
D. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from a new session.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which interface declares the save()method?
A. IDfSysObject
B. IDfTypedObject
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfPersistentObject
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which is NOT a valid interface?
A. IDfCabinet
B. IDfFolder
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfGroup
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are the minimum required components to extend custom object type behavior?
A. TBO and SBO
B. TBO and DFC
C. SBO and DFC
D. SBO and Web Services Framework
Answer: B

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NO.15 What kind of module is used to create a Documentum Web Service?
A. Type-based Business Object
B. Service-based Business Object
C. Web-based Business Object
D. Custom Module
Answer: B

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NO.16 A TBO has been created for a custom object type called my_loan_application. The TBO relies on a
dependant SBO to calculate credit scores. The TBO is only invoked by the Webtop application.
Where does the SBO execute?
A. Global registry machine
B. Content Server JVM
C. Application Server JVM
D. the client browser's JVM
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which code should you use to create a copy of the current object and place it in CopyCab?
A. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.savelock();
B. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.saveAsNew( false );
C. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
D. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
Answer: B

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NO.18 encrypt the password

NO.19 How can you provide an interface for a custom object type that gets instantiated using DFC methods
such as getObject()?
A. extend IDfDocument
B. extend IDfSysObject
C. create a TBO with an interface for the custom object type
D. create an SBO with an interface for the custom object type
Answer: C

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NO.20 A custom object type called my_loan_application is created with a custom repeating attribute called
borrower_names. The data type of the attribute is String.
Which interface declares a method to update borrower_names?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfType
C. IDfValueAssistance
D. IDfCustomObject
Answer: A

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NO.21 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
What is the output for the code, assuming you are using a session established to Docbase C from host2?
A. null
B. Docbase C
C. Docbase B Docbase C
D. Docbase A Docbase B Docbase C
Answer: C

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NO.22 Where are the credentials located for the BOF's client dynamic delivery mechanism?
A. dfc.properties
B. dmcl.ini
C. bof.properties
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.23 Given an SBO called com.mycompany.ICreditScore and the following statement:
newModule(repositoryName, "com.mycompany.ICreditScore", sessionMgr)
What does the statement do?
A. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
B. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
C. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
D. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
Answer: C

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NO.24 How do you manually configure the DFC global registry?
A. 1.add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
B. 1.encrypt the password
2. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
C. 1.activate the registry user
2. change the password

NO.25 Which statement is true about Connection Brokers?
A. A Connection Broker is not required in order to establish a session between DFC application and
Content Server.
B. To perform IP translation through a firewall, you need to have two Connection Brokers.
C. Load balancing across Connection Brokers is not natively supported.
D. When you shut down a Content Server, it automatically shuts down its primary Connection Broker.
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the correct hierarchy in the Documentum object model?
A. dm_folder inherits from dm_cabinet, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
B. dm_sysobject inherits from dm_document.
C. dm_document inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
D. dm_category inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
Answer: D

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NO.27 What happens when you fail to close open query collections in a DFC application?
A. Performance for other users will be impaired.
B. Eventually, no more queries can be executed.
C. Garbage collection will release appropriate resources.
D. The session will disconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
How do you dynamically add host2 as additional Connection Broker, such that Docbase A and Docbase B
are listed as available repositories?
A. change "host = host1" to "host = host1, host2" in dmcl.ini
B. execute IDfDocbrokerClient.addDocbroker("host2",1489);
C. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_BACKUP_1] host=host2 port=1489
D. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_SECONDARY] host=host2 port=1489
Answer: B

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NO.29 When are the binding rules for a virtual document actually applied?
A. When the virtual document is saved
B. When IDfSysObject.asVirtualDocument() is called
C. When IDfVirtualDocumentNode.getChildCount() is called
D. When IDfVirtualDocument.getRootNode() is called
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which SBO method signature is valid for conversion to a web service?
A. void setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
B. boolean uploadConfiguration(java.io.File myFile)
C. boolean setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
D. int countDocuments(IDfSession sess, String qualification)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-610
Exam Name: EMC (CLARiiON)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the status of CX600 cache during the battery test in release 12?
A. read cache gets disabled
B. write cache gets disabled
C. read and write cache are not disabled
D. both read and write cache gets disabled
Answer: D

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NO.2 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What does the "Alignment Offset" function align?
A. Lun on the raidgroup
B. Partition on the stripe boundary of a lun
C. Partition on the stripe size on the raidgroup
D. Partition on the metalun stripe element size
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which 2 mirror drives are the boot disks for SPB on a CLARiiON CX600?
A. 0_0_0
B. 0_0_1
C. 0_0_2
D. 0_0_3
Answer: B.D

NO.4 What is a valid frontend SP ALPA address on CLARiiON FCC4700 series?
A. 0 - 124
B. 0 - 128
C. 0 - 224
D. 0 - 255
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the minimum amount of needs in a CLARiiON CX400 to have a hostpare?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two [2] are valid methods of managing CLARiiON snapshots?
A. navilcli
B. admsnap
C. admcilone
D. admhosts
E. java-jar navicli.jar
Answer: A.B

NO.7 Why is a snapview session lost an SP failure?
A. The session was not persistent
B. The host agent was not running
C. The snapshot was not mounted
D. The snapshot was not in a storagegroup
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which user account is needed to install drivers on UNIX servers?
A. sys
B. root
C. oracle
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the ksh syntax to use vi commands for the shell history?
A. set-o vi
B. set-h vi
C. set-hist vi
D. export history=vi
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which CLI commands is used to verify the installed software versions?
A. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-list
B. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-installed
C. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-check
D. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 software-list
Answer: A

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NO.11 How does the CLARiiON preserves data in write cache during a power failure of a CX600?
A. The CX600 dumps the cache into the PSM
B. The CX600 dumps the cache into the vault area
C. The CX600 flushes the cache into the data disks
D. The CX600 dumps the cache onto the reserved space
Answer: B

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NO.12 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
How is the metalun configured in the image?
A. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
B. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
C. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
D. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which command allows for the extraction of all lines containing EMC case insensitive from the file test
txt?
A. vi test.txt
B. ed test.txt -EMC
C. grep EMC test.txt
D. grep -I emc test.txt
Answer: D

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NO.14 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What is the function of the "No install verify" select while binding a lun as shown in the image?
A. It will not verify the alignment offset
B. It will not verify contiguous free space
C. It will not verify if the raidgroup was transitioning
D. It will not do a background verify after the lun has been bound
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are the steps to add a disk to a Sun Solaris host online (no reboot of the host)?
A. Drvconfig, disks
B. Drvconfig, format, label
C. Drvconfig, disks, devlinks
D. Vi sd.conf, touch /reconfigure, init 6
Answer: C

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NO.16 Select three [3] items that are true about Snap View Clones.
A. Uses CLI Provider NDU
B. Can be mounted lat any time
C. Uses COFW, Copy on First Write
D. Must be exact same size of source LUNs
E. Must use a minimum of one snap cache LUN
F. Can only be created on an array with AccessLongix
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.17 Which component verifies that proper cabling has been done to the Katana?
A. SPS
B. Services Processor
C. LCC Loop ID LEDs
D. Fibre Channel Director
Answer: C

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NO.18 DRAG DROP
Match the failover modes to the software product.
Answer:

NO.19 DRAG DROP
What is the Power-on Sequence on the CLARiiON CX series?
Answer:

NO.20 Which three [3] characteristics do Veritas Volume manager, ALX LVM, HPUX LVM, and Solstice Disk
Suite have in common?
A. Striping at the host level
B. Provides data protection
C. Places a unique label on each disk
D. Groups disks together in volume groups
E. Creates large volumes out of smaller disks
Answer: A, B, E

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Exam Code: E20-390
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 333 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.3 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.8 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.13 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.14 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.17 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.19 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EC0-350
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical hacking and countermeasures)
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Total Q&A: 878 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which programming language is NOT vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks?
A.Java
B.ActiveX
C.C++
D.Assembly Language
Correct:A

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NO.2 Bill has successfully executed a buffer overflow against a Windows IIS web server. He has been
able to spawn an interactive shell and plans to deface the main web page. He first attempts to use
the "Echo" command to simply overwrite index.html and remains unsuccessful. He then attempts
to delete the page and achieves no progress. Finally, he tries to overwrite it with another page in
which also he remains unsuccessful. What is the probable cause of Bill's problem?
A.The system is a honeypot
B.The HTML file has permissions of read only
C.You cannot use a buffer overflow to deface a web page
D.There is a problem with the shell and he needs to run the attack again
Correct:B

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NO.3 What is the purpose of firewalking?
A.It's a technique used to map routers on a network link
B.It's a technique used to discover Wireless network on foot
C.It's a technique used to discover interface in promiscuous mode
D.It's a technique used to discover what rules are configured on a gateway
Correct:D

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NO.4 Mark works as a contractor for the Department of Defense and is in charge of network security.
He has spent the last month securing access to his network from all possible entry points. He has
segmented his network into several subnets and has installed firewalls all over the network. He
has placed very stringent rules on all the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports
that must be used. He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that
must be accessed from the Internet. Mark is fairly confident of his perimeter defenses, but is still
worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels. How
should mark protect his network from an attacker using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A.Block ICMP type 13 messages
B.Block all incoming traffic on port 53
C.Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D.Use stateful inspection on the firewalls
Correct:A

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NO.5 Lori has just been tasked by her supervisor toonduct vulnerability scan on the corporate
network.She has been instructed to perform a very thorough test of the network to ensure that
there are no security holes on any of the machines.Lori's company does not own any commercial
scanning products, so she decides to download a free one off the Internet.Lori has never done a
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downloaded.One of the options is to choose which ports that can be scanned.Lori wants to do
exactly what her boss has told her, but she does not know what ports should be scanned. If Lori is
supposed to scan all known TCP ports, how many ports should she select in the software?
A.65536
B.1024
C.1025
D.Lori should not scan TCP ports, only UDP ports
Correct:A

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NO.6 A program that defends against a port scanner will attempt to:
A.Sends back bogus data to the port scanner
B.Log a violation and recommend use of security-auditing tools
C.Limit access by the scanning system to publicly available ports only
D.Update a firewall rule in real time to prevent the port scan from being completed
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which of the following built-in C/C++ functions you should avoid to prevent your program from
buffer overflow attacks?
A.strcpy()
B.strcat()
C.streadd()
D.strsock()
Correct:A B C

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NO.8 A client has approached you with a penetration test requirement. They are concerned with the
possibility of external threat, and have invested considerable resources in protecting their
Internet exposure. However, their main concern is the possibility of an employee elevating his/her
privileges and gaining access to information outside of their department. What kind of penetration
test would you recommend that would best address the client's concern?
A.A Grey Hat test
B.A Grey Box test
C.A Black Hat test
D.A White Hat test
E.A Black Box test
F.A White Box test
Correct:B

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NO.9 What file system vulnerability does the following command take advantage of? type
c:\anyfile.exe > c:\winnt\system32\calc.exe:anyfile.exe
A.HFS
B.ADS
C.NTFS
D.Backdoor access
Correct:B

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NO.10 Bob is acknowledged as a hacker of repute and is popular among visitors of 'underground' sites.
Bob is willing to share his knowledge to those who are willing to learn, and many have expressed
their interest in learning from him. However, this knowledge has risks associated with it, as the
same knowledge can be used for malevolent attacks as well. In this context, what would be the
most effective method to bridge the knowledge gap between the "black" hats or crackers and the
"white" hats or computer security professionals?
A.Hire more computer security monitoring personnel to monitor computer systems and networks
B.Educate everyone with books, articles and training on risk analysis, vulnerabilities and safeguards
C.Train more national guard and reservist in the art of computer security to help out in times of emergency
or crises
D.Make obtaining either a computer security certification or accreditation easier to achieve so more
individuals feel that they are a part of something larger than life
Correct:B

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NO.11 What type of port scan is shown below? Scan directed at open port: ClientServer
192.5.2.92:4079 ---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079 <----NO
RESPONSE------192.5.2.110:23 Scan directed at closed port: ClientServer 192.5.2.92:4079
---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079<-----RST/ACK----------192.5.2.110:23
A.Idle Scan
B.FIN Scan
C.XMAS Scan
D.Windows Scan
Correct:B

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NO.12 Maurine is working as a security consultant for Hinklemeir Associates.She has asked the
Systems Administrator to create a group policy that would not allow null sessions on the network.
The Systems Administrator is fresh out of college and has never heard of null sessions and does
not know what they are used for. Maurine is trying to explain to the Systems Administrator that
hackers will try to create a null session when footprinting the network. Why would an attacker try
to create a null session with a computer on a network?
A.Enumerate users and shares
B.Install a backdoor for later attacks
C.Escalate his/her privileges on the target server
D.To create a user with administrative privileges for later use
Correct:A

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NO.13 Travis works primarily from home as a medical transcriptionist. He just bought a brand new
Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. He uses voice recognition software to help
him transfer what he dictates to electronic documents. The voice recognition software is
processor intensive, which is why he bought the new computer. Travis frequently has to get on
the Internet to do research on what he is working on. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Travis uses antivirus
software, anti-spyware software, and always keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Travis' computer is even more
noticeably slow. Every once in awhile, Travis also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen,
but they quickly disappear.He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on
the Internet. Travis is really worried about his computer because he spent a lot of money on it, and
he depends on it to work. Travis scans his computer with all kinds of software, and cannot find
anything out of the ordinary. Travis decides to go through Windows Explorer and check out the
file system, folder by folder, to see if there is anything he can find. He spends over four hours
pouring over the files and folders and cannot find anything.But, before he gives up, he notices
that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available.Since his hard drive is a 200 GB
hard drive, Travis thinks this is very odd. Travis downloads Space Monger and adds up the sizes
for all the folders and files on his computer. According to his calculations, he should have around
150 GB of free space. What is mostly likely the cause of Travis' problems?
A.Travis's computer is infected with stealth kernel level rootkit
B.Travis's computer is infected with Stealth Trojan Virus
C.Travis's computer is infected with Self-Replication Worm that fills the hard disk space
D.Logic Bomb is triggered at random times creating hidden data consuming junk files
Correct:A

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NO.14 After a client sends a connection request (SYN) packet to the server, the server will respond
(SYN-ACK) with a sequence number of its choosing, which then must be acknowledged (ACK) by
the client. This sequence number is predictable; the attack connects to a service first with its own
IP address, records the sequence number chosen, and then opens a second connection from a
forged IP address. The attack doesn't see the SYN-ACK (or any other packet) from the server, but
can guess the correct responses. If the source IP address is used for authentication, then the
attacker can use the one-sided communication to break into the server. What attacks can you
successfully launch against a server using the above technique?
A.Session Hijacking attacks
B.Denial of Service attacks
C.Web page defacement attacks
D.IP spoofing attacks
Correct:A

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NO.15 Samantha has been actively scanning the client network for which she is doing a vulnerability
assessment test. While doing a port scan she notices ports open in the 135 to 139 range. What
protocol is most likely to be listening on those ports?
A.FTP
B.SMB
C.Finger
D.Samba
Correct:B

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NO.16 Eric notices repeated probes to port 1080. He learns that the protocol being used is designed to
allow a host outside of a firewall to connect transparently and securely through the firewall. He
wonders if his firewall has been breached. What would be your inference?
A.Eric's network has been penetrated by a firewall breach
B.The attacker is using the ICMP protocol to have a covert channel
C.Eric has a Wingate package providing FTP redirection on his network
D.Somebody is using SOCKS on the network to communicate through the firewall
Correct:D

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NO.17 Why is Social Engineering considered attractive by hackers and commonly done by experts in
the field?
A.It is not considered illegal
B.It is done by well-known hackers
C.It is easy and extremely effective to gain information
D.It does not require a computer in order to commit a crime
Correct:C

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NO.18 Bill has started to notice some slowness on his network when trying to update his company's
website and while trying to access the website from the Internet. Bill asks the help desk manager
if he has received any calls about slowness from the end users, but the help desk manager says
that he has not. Bill receives a number of calls from customers that cannot access the company
website and cannot purchase anything online. Bill logs on to a couple of his routers and notices
that the logs show network traffic is at an all time high.?He also notices that almost all the traffic
is originating from a specific address. Bill decides to use Geotrace to find out where the suspect
IP is originates from. The Geotrace utility runs a traceroute and finds that the IP is coming from
Panama.?Bill knows that none of his customers are in Panama so he immediately thinks that his
company is under a Denial of Service attack. Now Bill needs to find out more about the originating
IP address. What Internet registry should Bill look in to find the IP address?
A.LACNIC
B.ARIN
C.RIPE LACNIC
D.APNIC
Correct:A

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NO.19 Samuel is the network administrator of DataX Communications, Inc. He is trying to configure his
firewall to block password brute force attempts on his network. He enables blocking the intruder's
IP address for a period of 24 hours time after more than three unsuccessful attempts. He is
confident that this rule will secure his network from hackers on the Internet. But he still receives
hundreds of thousands brute-force attempts generated from various IP addresses around the
world. After some investigation he realizes that the intruders are using a proxy somewhere else
on the Internet which has been scripted to enable the random usage of various proxies on each
request so as not to get caught by the firewall rule. Later he adds another rule to his firewall and
enables small sleep on the password attempt so that if the password is incorrect, it would take 45
seconds to return to the user to begin another attempt. Since an intruder may use multiple
machines to brute force the password, he also throttles the number of connections that will be
prepared to accept from a particular IP address. This action will slow the intruder's attempts.
Samuel wants to completely block hackers brute force attempts on his network. What are the
alternatives to defending against possible brute-force password attacks on his site?
A.Enforce a password policy and use account lockouts after three wrong logon attempts even though this
might lock out legit users
B.Enable the IDS to monitor the intrusion attempts and alert you by e-mail about the IP address of the
intruder so that you can block them at the Firewall manually
C.Enforce complex password policy on your network so that passwords are more difficult to brute force
D.You cannot completely block the intruders attempt if they constantly switch proxies
Correct:D

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NO.20 Clive is conducting a pen-test and has just port scanned a system on the network. He has
identified the operating system as Linux and been able to elicit responses from ports 23, 25 and
53. He infers port 23 as running Telnet service, port 25 as running SMTP service and port 53 as
running DNS service. The client confirms these findings and attests to the current availability of
the services. When he tries to telnet to port 23 or 25, he gets a blank screen in response. On
typing other commands, he sees only blank spaces or underscores symbols on the screen. What
are you most likely to infer from this?
A.The services are protected by TCP wrappers
B.There is a honeypot running on the scanned machine
C.An attacker has replaced the services with trojaned ones
D.This indicates that the telnet and SMTP server have crashed
Correct:A

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NO.1 Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read
it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the
OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

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NO.6 When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated
components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your
network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted
name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device
for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

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NO.12 When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion
device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band
transmission.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from
layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function
of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the
function of that layer.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you
create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone
Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network
adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

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