2013年6月30日星期日

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Exam Code: 050-V70-CSEDLPS02

Exam Name: RSA (RSA Data Loss Prevention Certified System Engineer 7.x Exam)

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NO.1 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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NO.3 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
DLP Endpoint Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
policies in DLP release 7.0 and later releases.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ML0-220

Exam Name: Mile2 (Certified Network Security Administrator..)

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NO.1 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the challenges associated with VPN implementation?
A. Complexity of infrastructure
B. Addressing and routing and administration
C. Difficulty with centralized management of client policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following rules related to a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster
Recovery Plan is not correct?
A. In order to facilitate recovery, a single plan should coverall locations
B. There should be requirements for forming a committee to decide a course of action.
These decisions should be made ahead of time
and incorporated into the plan
C. In its procedures and tasks, the plan should refer to functions, not specific individuals
D. Critical vendors should be contacted ahead of time to validate equipment that can be
obtained in a timely manner
Answer: A

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NO.4 Zip/Jaz drives, SyQuest, and Bemoulli boxes are very transportable and are often
the standard for:
A. Data exchange in many businesses
B. Data change in many businesses
C. Data compression in many businesses
D. Data interchange in many businesses
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is TRUE then transmitting Secret Information over the
network?
A. Secret Information should be transmitted in an encrypted form
B. Secret Information should be transmitted as a plain-text
C. Secret Information should be transmitted in a compressed form
D. Secret Information should be transmitted along with user id
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.7 Firewalls at this level know a great deal about what is going on and can be very
selective in granting access:
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

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NO.9 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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NO.10 An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting
infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an
activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following c1assify under techno crime?
A. Stolen customer account details
B. Virus attack
C. Server failure
D. Hurricane
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which out of the following is/are preventive measures against password sniffing?
A. Passwords must not be sent through email in plain text
B. Passwords must not be stored in plain text on any electronic media
C. Passwords may be electronically stored if encrypted
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.13 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.14 The most common method of social engineering is:
A. Looking through users' trash for information
B. Calling users and asking for information
C. E-mailing users and asking for information
D. E-mail
Answer: B

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15.The full form of IDS is ____________
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Intrusion Deactivation System
C. Information Distribution System
D. Intrusion Detection Software
Answer: A

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17.What is an Intranet?
A. A private network using World Wide Web technology
B. A private network using digital telephony services
C. A public network using World Wide Web technology
D. A public network using digital telephony services
Answer: A

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18.Which of the following is the best description of" separation of duties"?
A. Assigning different parts of tasks to different employees
B. Employees are canted only the privileges necessary to perform their tasks
C. Each employee is granted specific information that is required to carry out the job
function
D. Screening employees before assigning them to a position
Answer: A

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19.Who is the main person responsible for installation and maintenance of the
computer systems?
A. Chief Executive Officer
B. System Supplier
C. System Designer
D. Business Process Owner
Answer: B

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20.You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You wont to allow
for maximum number of Hosts. What is the
subnet mask you need to apply?
A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a good practice for audit logs?
A. Audit Logs should be accessible to all users at all times
B. Audit Logs should be accessible to security personnel only
C. Audit Logs should contain unsuccessful login attempts
D. Audit Logs should not contain any passwords
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SC0-411

Exam Name: SCP (Hardening the Infrastructure (HTI))

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NO.1 Which of the following is implemented in an IPv6 environment, which helps to
increase security?
A. EFS
B. IPsec
C. Caching
D. S/MIME
E. Destination and Source Address Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the function of the HFNetChk tool from Microsoft?
A. To check for the current Hotfixes that are available from Microsoft
B. It is an upgrade to the Windows Update tool for checking on all updates
C. It is the tool that must be run prior to installing IIS 5.0
D. It is the tool that checks the network configuration of all web servers
E. To record what Hotfixes and service packs are running on the Windows machine
Answer: E

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NO.3 You have recently hired an assistant to help you with managing the security of your
network. You are currently running an all Windows environment, and are
describing NTFS permission issues. You are using some demonstration files to help
with your discussion. You have two NTFS partitions, C:\ and D:\ There is a test file,
C:\DIR1\test.txt that is currently set so that only Administrators have Full Control.
If you move this file to the C:\DIR2 folder, what will the permissions be for this file?
A. The file will have the same permissions as D:\DIR2
B. The file permissions will remain the same
C. The file permissions will be lost
D. The file permissions will convert to Everyone - Full Control
E. The permissions will be set to whatever the CREATOR OWNER permissions are for
the D:\ partition
Answer: B

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NO.4 One way to find out more about a company's infrastructure layout is to send email
to a non-existent user of the target organization. When this email bounces back as
undeliverable, you can read the message source. Which of the following pieces of
information can be derived from the returned message source?
A. Target company's email server's hostname.
B. Target company's email server's public IP address.
C. Target company's internal IP addressing scheme.
D. Target company's email server's application name and version, if provided.
E. Target company's employees' email addresses.
Answer: ABD

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NO.5 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine.
When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few
configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function
of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently
logged in users.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You wish to add a new group to your Linux system. The group is called
SCNP_Admins, and is to be given a Group Identifier of 1024. What is the correct
command to add this new group?
A. addgroup SCNP_Admins -id 1024
B. groupadd -g 1024 SCNP_Admins
C. addgroup SCNP_Admins id/1024
D. groupadd id/1024 g/SCNP_Admins
E. groupadd g/1024 SCNP_Admins
Answer: B

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NO.7 You work for a mid sized ISP on the West Coast of the United Kingdom. Recently
you have noticed that there are an increasing number of attacks on the Internet
routers used in the company. The routers are physically secured well, so you can be
somewhat confident the attacks are all remote. Which of the following are legitimate
threats the routers are facing, under this situation?
A. Damaged Cables
B. False Data Injection
C. Social Engineering
D. Unauthorized Remote Access
E. Denial of Service
Answer: BDE

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NO.8 In order to add to your layered defense, you wish to implement some security
configurations on your router. If you wish to have the router work on blocking TCP
SYN attacks, what do you add to the end of an ACL statement?
A. The IP addresses for allowed networks
B. The port range of allowed applications
C. The word Established
D. The word Log
E. The string: no service udp-small-servers
Answer: C

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NO.9 In order to properly manage the network traffic in your organization, you need a
complete understanding of protocols and networking models. In regards to the
7-layer OSI model, what is the function of the Transport Layer?
A. The Transport layer allows two applications on different computers to establish, use,
and end a session. This layer establishes dialog control between the two computers in a
session, regulating which side transmits, plus when and how long it transmits.
B. The Transport layer manages logical addresses. It also determines the route from the
source to the destination computer and manages traffic problems, such as routing, and
controlling the congestion of data packets.
C. The Transport layer packages raw bits from the Physical (Layer 1) layer into frames
(structured packets for data). Physical addressing (as opposed to network or logical
addressing) defines how devices are addressed at the data link layer. This layer is
responsible for transferring frames from one computer to another, without errors. After
sending a frame, it waits for an acknowledgment from the receiving computer.
D. The Transport layer transmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the
transmission of a stream of bits over a physical medium. For example, this layer defines
how the cable is attached to the network adapter and what transmission technique is used
to send data over the cable.
E. The Transport layer handles error recognition and recovery. It also repackages long
messages, when necessary, into small packets for transmission and, at the receiving end,
rebuilds packets into the original message. The corresponding Transport layer at the
receiving end also sends receipt acknowledgments.
Answer: E

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NO.10 When a new user account is created in Linux, what values are assigned?
A. Shell_GID
B. SetGID
C. SetUID
D. UID
E. GID
Answer: DE

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NO.11 In your network, you manage a mixed environment of Windows, Linux, and UNIX
computers. The clients run Windows 2000 Professional and Windows NT 4.0
Workstation, while the Servers are UNIX and Linux based with custom
applications. During routine administration you successfully ping several nodes in
the network. During this you are running a packet capture for further analysis.
When examining one of the frames you notice that the Ethernet address for the
source is 1ED0.097E.E5E9 and that for the destination is 1ED0.096F.5B13. From
this information you gather that:
A. They are in different networks
B. The destination address is in the 1ED0 subnet
C. The network cards are by the same manufacturer
D. The destination address is in the 1ED0.09AA subnet
E. The source and destination share the same MAC subnet
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are reviewing the Xinetd configuration file for the ftp service. If the following
line found in this file, what is the line's function?
redirect = 192.168.10.1 3456
A. That only 192.168.10.1 can make ftp requests
B. That only hosts in the 192.168.10.0/24 network can make ftp requests
C. That only 3456 connections are allowed to the ftp service on 192.168.10.1
D. That the overall Xinetd configuration has redirect lines in it
E. That the ftp service is redirected to IP 192.168.10.1 on port 3456
Answer: E

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NO.13 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E

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NO.14 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system,
and want the permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent
directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000
network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates
to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security
Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different
Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power
Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security
areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic
between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a
DC.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you
do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the
term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and
accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections
between a dialup client and a dialup server.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are creating the contingency plan for the network in hospital where you just
started working. The network has about 300 PCs, about 50 Servers, and is
interconnected into some of the critical patient systems for monitoring purposes.
What is the appropriate level of backup power for this type of network?
A. Building Generator
B. Personal UPS
C. Alternative Fuel-Cell Technology
D. Server Rack UPS
E. Electrical Company
Answer: A

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NO.18 As you become more involved in the security and networking of your organization,
you wish to learn the exact details of the protocols in use. It is suggested to you, by a
friend, that you check the RFC for each protocol. What is an RFC?
A. An RFC is a program that has a searchable index to troubleshoot network problems.
B. An RFC is a document that discusses issues surrounding the Internet, networking
technologies, and/or networking protocols.
C. An RFC is a hidden resource, which can be called up via the Windows Help file to
identify details about networking protocols.
D. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on the Internet.
E. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on an Intranet.
Answer: B

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NO.19 In Windows 2000, there are four methods of implementing IPSec. They are:
1. Require Security
2 - Request Security
3 - Respond Only
4 - No IPSec Policy
Your network hosts many servers, and different security policies are in place in
different locations in the network. The Clients and Servers in your network are
configured as follows:
-You have servers numbered 1-9, which have a policy stating they require no
network traffic security.
-You have servers numbered 10-19, which have a policy stating they are not
required to be secure, but will encrypt network traffic if the client is able to receive
it.
-You have servers numbered 20-29, which have a policy stating they are required to
be secure and all network traffic they deliver must be secured.
-You have clients numbered 60-79 that are required to access secure servers 20-29.
-You have clients numbered 80-99 that are not required to access secure servers
20-29, but are required to access servers 1-9 and 10-19.
Based on the Client and Server configuration provided above, which of the
following computers will implement IPSec method 2?
A. Computers numbered 1-9
B. Computers numbered 10-19
C. Computers numbered 20-29
D. Computers numbered 60-79
E. Computers numbered 80-99
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are configuring a wildcard mask for the subnet 10.12.24.0 / 255.255.248.0.
Which of the following is the wildcard mask to use for this subnet?
A. 0.255.255.255
B. 10.12.24.255
C. 0.0.248.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 0.0.7.255
Answer: E

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NO.21 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user
of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible
consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
Answer: AC

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NO.22 The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and
E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively
and interface S0 is connected to the Internet.
The objective is to allow two hosts, 192.168.20.16 and 192.168.10.7 access to the
Internet while all other hosts are to be denied Internet access. All hosts on network
192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 must be allowed to access resources on both internal
networks. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required
to make this possible.
A. access-list 53 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 80 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 53 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access-list 80 permit 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0
E. int S0, ip access-group 53 out
F. int S0, ip access-group 80 out
Answer: BDF

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NO.23 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are
the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify
what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE

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NO.24 You are creating the contingency plan, and are trying to take into consideration as
many of the disasters as you can think of. Which of the following are examples of
technological disasters?
A. Hurricane
B. Terrorism
C. Tornado
D. Virus
E. Trojan Horse
Answer: BDE

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NO.25 When you took over the security responsibilities at your office, you noticed there
were no warning banners on any of the equipment. You have decided to create a
warning login banner on your Cisco router. Which of the following shows the
correct syntax for the banner creation?
A. banner login C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
B. login banner C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
C. banner login Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
D. login banner Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
E. banner logging C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this
device. C
Answer: A

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NO.26 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has
been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that
it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network
ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
Answer: E

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NO.27 If you are looking for plain-text ASCII characters in the payload of a packet you
capture using Network Monitor, which Pane will provide you this information?
A. Summary Pane
B. Packet Pane
C. Collection Pane
D. Hex Pane
E. Detail Pane
Answer: D

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NO.28 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on
a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following fields are found in a user account's line in the /etc/passwd
file?
A. The User Identifier assigned to the user account
B. The home directory used by the user account
C. The number of days since the user account password was changed
D. The full name for the user account
E. The number of days until the user account's password must change
Answer: ABD

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NO.30 In the last few days, users have reported to you that they have each received two
emails from an unknown source with file attachments. Fortunately the users have
listened to your training and no one has run the attached program. You study the
attachment on an isolated computer and find that it is a program that is designed to
execute a payload when the system clock registers 10:10 PM on February 29. Which
of the following best identifies the type of program is the attachment?
A. Mail Bomb
B. Logic Bomb
C. Polymorphic Virus
D. Stealth Virus
E. Polymorphic Trojan
Answer: B

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NO.1 On the simulated Windows desktop carry out the necessary steps to restart the computer.
A. Select->start->shutdown->restart->ok
Answer: A

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NO.2 If the computer application you are working on has "frozen" what is the first thing you should do.?
A. Re-install the non-responding application.
B. Pressctrl+Alt+Delete.
C. Turn off the PC's power supply.
D. Slect Exit from the application's File menu.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Change the keyboard language to UK English.
A. Select->keyboard->input Locales->select to EnglishUK->press Set as Defaults->ok
Answer: A

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NO.4 Use tshe simulated Windows Desktop to find out how much RAM is installed.
Select the appropriate radio button then click on SUBMIT.
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Answer: A

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NO.1 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.2 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDSelf
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Seta sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configurethe portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. basesthe portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about supplemental fields added to a table occurrence based on an External
ODBC Data Source that uses MySQL?
A. These fields may only be of type Summary or Calculation
B. These fields may be indexed unless they are of type Summary.
C. These fields will be added to the table definitions within MySQL when the Sync button in the FileMaker
Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
D. These fields will be lost if the schema of the MySQL table is changed and then the Sync button in the
FileMaker Pro 12 Manage Database dialog is used.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two.)
A. Calculation fields cannot be indexed.
B. Indexing improves the speed at which sorts are performed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A field must be indexed in order for Auto-complete using previously entered values to function.
E. Minimal indexing indicates that either the value index or the word index has been created, but not both
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

NO.7 Which statement is true given two FileMaker Pro 12 files, Vendors and Products, if a table from
Products appears on the Vendors Relationships Graph?
A. Scripts in Vendors can reference data from global variables defined in Products.
B. Layouts from Products can be displayed in the same window as layouts from Vendors.
C. Vendors can contain multiple valid external FileMaker Data Sources referencing Products.
D. A table occurrence from Products is required on the Vendors Relationships Graph in order to call a
script in Products from Vendors
Answer: C

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NO.8 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.9 A FileMaker Pro 12 database has two tables called Company and Customer. Both tables have a
number field called CompanyID. The two tables have a relationship between them formed by the
condition Company:: CompanyID = Customer:: CompanyID. Each table also has a text field called
CompanyName. The CompanyName field in the Customer table is defined to Auto-enter calculated value,
with the formula: Company:: CompanyName and the option Do not replace existing value of field
unchecked.
Under which circumstances will the value of the CompanyName field on a Customer record be refreshed
with data from the related Company record?
A. any time the Customer record is modified
B. any time the index of the Company:: CompanyID field is rebuilt
C. any time the related Company:: CompanyName field is modified
D. any time the CompanyID field on the Customer record is modified
E. any time a user chooses Refresh Window from the Records menu while viewing the Customer record
Answer: D

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NO.10 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables:
And the relationship is configured as follows:
Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
B. Users may create new Order records by entering data into a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
C. A merge field can be used on layouts based on the Salesperson table occurrence to show a list of all of
a salesperson's orders.
D. Removing the sort from the Order side of the relationship will not change the way that Order records
are displayed in a portal on a Salesperson Detail layout.
E. List (Salesperson:: Salesperson ID) calculated from the context of the Order table returns a list
containing the Salesperson ID for the current order.
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 For which field type can the field validation setting Strict data type: Numeric Only be applied?
A. Text
B. Date
C. Integer
D. Summary
E. Timestamp
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the theoretical maximum record count in a FileMaker Pro 12 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: A

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NO.14 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 12 Advanced?
A. 100
B. 125
C. 250
D. 999
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 12 Advanced?
A. 10, 000
B. 32, 000
C. 50, 000
D. 64, 000
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
data.
D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
field is changed to store data externally.
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.19 DRAG DROP
Identify the default ports used in FileMaker Server 12 (choices may be used more than once).
Answer:

NO.20 Consider a FileMaker Pro 12 database with the following tables and fields:
Assuming only the above relationships between table occurrences, using sorting if necessary, which two
actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Create a value list that shows all Invoices for a chosen Customer
B. Create a value list on a Product layout which displays all Customers
C. Find all of the Customers who have ever ordered a specific Product
D. Create a portal to display each Product that has been ordered by a Customer
E. Display all records from the Customer table in a portal on a layout for an Invoice Item record
Answer: B,E

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NO.1 Assume that you wish to improve the response time when executing the following [XQuery]
on a
certain XMLDB.
Which one of the answers below is not an appropriate point to be checked?
Assume that the XMLDB does not have any automated optimization functions related to the
answer choices.
A. Revise the [XQuery] expression
B. Revise the configuration of the relevant XML data index
C. Investigate the disk capacity size used by the XMLDB
D. Investigate the influence of any exclusive access controls performed by other processes when
executing the [XQuery]
Answer: C

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NO.2 Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML
document data are listed below.
Considering the general characteristics, which individual management method ([Management
Methods]) combines most optimally with which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document

NO.3 Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search through
data using queries on the XML document
[Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A

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4. Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context defined by
XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default element/type
namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained using the
"fn:last()" function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D

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NO.4 Assume that perfect fidelity of a complete XML document is required in a certain XML
document.
Select the most suitable method for providing perfect XML document fidelity when storing an XML
document using the following methods.
Here "perfect XML document fidelity" means that an XML document retrieved from the XMLDB is
exactly the same as the original XML document prior to XMLDB insertion, completely identical
when compared using binary, including empty element notations, whitespace locations, etc.
A. Store the XML document as a model based on XPath 1.0
B. Store the XML document as a model based on XML Information Set (Infoset)
C. Store the XML document as a BLOB (Binary Large Object) type with no character encoding
method defined
D. Store the XML document as an NCLOB (National Character Large Object) type for which UTF-
8 has been defined as the character encoding method
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents
via
HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of
the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request
header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header
information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request
header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above
when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume
that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is "UTF-16;" however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines "Content-Type: text/xml." however, the charset parameter is not
defined in this Content-Type header field.
A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined
Answer: A

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Exam Code: VCP-411

Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4)

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NO.1 Which of the following are modules that are not pre-installed and must be added to a vCenter
(Choose Three)?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware vCenter Guided Consolidation
C. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
D. VMware vCenter Update Manager
E. VMware vCenter Storage Monitoring
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator is installing vCenter. The selected database is Oracle 11g. Which of the following
steps are required to configure the database for use with vCenter (Choose Two)?
A. Use a Script to Create the Oracle Database Schema
B. Use a Script to Create a Local or Remote Database
C. Configure an Oracle Database User
D. Configure an Oracle Connection for Local or Remote Access
Answer: CD

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NO.4 An administrator is checking a HA/DRS Cluster for Compliance. Which of the following occurs if a host
profile is not attached to the cluster.?
A. The compliance check asks for a valid host profile
B. The compliance check uses the default Datacenter host profile
C. The compliance check generates an error
D. The cluster is checked for specific HA, DRS and DPM cluster requirements
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a benefit of ESXi over ESX?
A. Improved Fault Isolation
B. Increased Security and Reliability
C. Dynamic Resource Allocation
D. Memory Overcommitment
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would
need to be modified or replaced to support a successful ?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following are benefits of ESXi over ESX (Choose Two)?
A. RCLI support
B. Scripted
C. Smaller Attack Surface
D. Less Code to Patch
Answer: CD

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NO.8 The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following would prevent the application of a Host Profile to an ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. The host is an ESXi Host
B. The host has not been placed into Maintenance Mode
C. The host has multiple profiles attached
D. The host is an ESX 3.5 Host
Answer: BD

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NO.10 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use VMware ESXi instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
A. The company wants to be able to patch the servers hosting their virtual machines with zero virtual
machine downtime
B. The company is virtualizing several physical servers and wants a centralized management option
C. The company needs to access their virtual machines remotely and VMware Server 2 does not support
a remote console option
D. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines
Answer: AB

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NO.11 When configuring the Oracle Connection to work remotely with vCenter Server, which of the following
is required (Choose Two)?
A. The tnsnames.ora file must be edited with the managed host name
B. The TNS Service Name option must be configured in the ODBC DSN
C. Use the Net8 Conf iguration Utility to add the service name
D. Add the entry open_cursors = 300 to the C:.ora file
Answer: AB

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NO.12 What is the proper LUN Masking configuration for LUNs presented to an ESX Host when using the
Boot from SAN option?
A. The Boot LUN should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUN, while the datastore
LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
B. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUNs
C. The Boot LUN should be masked so that all ESX Hosts can see the LUN, while the datastore LUNS
should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
D. The Boot LUN and datastore LUNS should be masked so that only one ESX Host can see the LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.13 Under which of the following conditions would an administrator consider using the Boot from SAN
option for the ESX Host (Choose Two)?
A. When concern exists that contention might occur between the Service Console and the VMkernel
B. When using Microsoft Cluster Service
C. To easily replicate the Service Console to a remote site
D. In diskless hardware configurations
Answer: CD

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NO.14 Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following are valid methods of creating a Host Profile (Choose Two)?
A. Create a profile using the Profile Editor
B. Create a profile from an existing ESX 4 Host
C. Import a profile from an existing .vpf file
D. Clone a profile from an existing profile
Answer: BC

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NO.16 An administrator is installing an ESX Host to boot from a SAN LUN. The storage array is an
active/passive array. After configuring the boot LUN and installing ESX, the system does not boot properly.
Which of the following could cause this issue?
A. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
B. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
C. The Storage Processor port specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is active
D. The LUN specified in the BIOS configuration of the HBA is passive
Answer: A

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NO.17 An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would
increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need
to be increased during as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

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NO.19 An administrator is installing vCenter in a virtual machine. The selected database is Microsoft SQL
Server 2005. Which of the following actions must be taken before vCenter is installed (Choose Two)?
A. If the guest OS has MSXML Core Services 6.0 installed, it must be removed
B. The Microsoft SQL Native Client should be removed
C. The Microsoft SQL Server Client should be removed
D. If the guest OS is Windows XP, MDAC 2.8 SP1 must be applied
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which of the following are valid sub-profile configurations that may be edited with the Host Profile editor
(Choose Three)?
A. Advanced
B. Virtual Machine Options
C. Security
D. Memory Reservation
E. CPU Reservation
Answer: ACD

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