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Exam Code: HP0-P10
Exam Name: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 147 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.5 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.6 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.7 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.8 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.9 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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NO.12 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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NO.14 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.15 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.16 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.19 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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NO.21 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.22 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.23 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.24 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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NO.25 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.28 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.30 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M19
Exam Name: HP (HP Virtual User Generator Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable
this option?
A.General options
B.Playback options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:A

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NO.2 You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not
shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?
A.enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings
B.manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view
C.add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task
D.select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view
Correct:A

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NO.3 What is used, during the debugging process that will pause execution at a specific point in the
script?
A.Step button
B.Compile button
C.Execution Arrow button
D.Toggle Breakpoint button
Correct:D

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NO.4 You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform
their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight
reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Search for 20 flight reservations. A representative
cannot perform a Modify without performing a Search first. Which run logic would satisfy the load
testing goal?
A.Create - 67% Search - 16% Block0 - 17% Search Modify
B.Create - 57% Search - 29% Block0 - 14% Search Modify
C.Create - 57% Search - 29% Modify - 14%
D.Create - 67% Search - 16% Modify - 17%
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?
A.login
B.action
C.vuser_init
D.vuser_end
Correct:C

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NO.6 Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?
A.Test settings
B.General options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:D

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NO.7 You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to
record a group of scripts on the same application on his workstation. What can you do to provide
the tester with the correlation rules?
A.You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using
the same Controller machine.
B.Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import
the file into his script.
C.The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester
has access to the script main folder.
D.You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor
file into his Auto Correlation rules.
Correct:D

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NO.8 What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual
correlation?
A.Standard
B.Disable Logging
C.Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Correct:D

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NO.9 You want to have your script define a different e-mail address to each user during a registration
process for an e-commerce site, using the following format: testing99999@hp.com. Your script
will execute a maximum of 50 iterations. How can this be accomplished?
A.define a file parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format: testing%05d@hp.com
B.define a unique number parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
C.define a random number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number: 99999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
D.define a sequential number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number 999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
Correct:B

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NO.10 You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B.
How can this be accomplished?
A.save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Correct:A

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Exam Code: HP0-081
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

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NO.2 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

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NO.3 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

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NO.4 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

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NO.5 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.6 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

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NO.7 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

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NO.8 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

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NO.9 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

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NO.10 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

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NO.11 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

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NO.12 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

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NO.13 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

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NO.14 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

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NO.16 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

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NO.17 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.18 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

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NO.19 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

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NO.20 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-M14
Exam Name: HP (HP Project and Portolio Management 7.1 Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 If a project manager wished to provide a set of dashboard pages to the project team whereby none of
the team members could change the data or modify any of the pages, which option would be best?
A. self-service module
B. shared module
C. personalize dashboard
D. publish dashboard
Answer: B

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NO.2 What basic information is required to define a field? Select three.
A. token
B. validation
C. attributes
D. storage
E. field prompt
Answer:ABE

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NO.3 What are the different security layers that you can enforce in a request process? Select three.
A. license
B. field-level restrictions
C. participant permissions
D. access grant security group
E. workflow step permissions
Answer: BCE

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NO.4 Which field attributes can be conditionally set using status dependency rules? Select four.
A. visible
B. editable
C. required
D. confirm
E. reconfirm
Answer: ABCE

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NO.5 Which of the field entries that can be automated by a simple default rule is mandatory?
A. Workflow
B. Assigned To C. Assigned Group
D. None of the field entries are mandatory
Answer:A

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NO.6 What are the main configuration entities that make up a request process implementation? Select three.
A. request workflow
B. request template
C. request header type
D. request form
E. request type
Answer:ACE

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NO.7 Which standard portlets are available on a preconfigured portfolio management page? Select two.
A. asset list
B. current portfolio
C. project list
D. portfolio by business objective
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Which time sheet statuses are displayed in the TMG-My Time Sheets portlet? Select four.
A. cancel
B. closed
C. approved
D. frozen
E. unsubmitted
Answer: BCDE

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NO.9 The below exhibit of request type intitled3 displays a set of fields in its fields tab. Where were these
fields acquired?
A. fields were added by selecting New at the bottom of the screen
B. fields were inherited from the default Request Header
C. fields were added by selecting the Field Group option
D. fields were added and inherited in Sub-Types tab
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which element of a table rule defines the logic for applying the automated entries in the results
column?
A. dependencies
B. results
C. PL/SQL D. SQL
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-144
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.8 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.10 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.15 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.17 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-085
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 201 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A.Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B.Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C.An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D.Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E.Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in separate
hard partitions (nPars).
Correct:C D

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NO.2 How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station
(SMS)?
A.8
B.16
C.24
D.32
Correct:B

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NO.3 How does Pellston technology contribute to reliability and high availability of Montecito
processors?
A.It increases the bandwidth of the processor bus.
B.It removes hard cache errors by disabling the affected Level 3 (L3) cache line.
C.It measures processor power consumption and deactivates processors with irregular usage.
D.It measures processor power consumption and increases processor frequency for processors that
serve particular applications.
Correct:B

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NO.4 What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP)
provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.event logs
B.console logs
C.server power usage
D.processor utilization percentages
E.service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Correct:A B

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NO.5 Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A.Online JFS
B.Mirrordisk/UX
C.Data Protector
D.Workload Manager (WLM)
E.Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Correct:A B

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NO.6 Which configuration rule is true for an HP Integrity Superdome cell board memory?
A.DIMMS must all be the same size.
B.Memory must be added all at one time.
C.Individual DIMMS must be loaded in pairs.
D.Mixing DIMM size is allowed with some restrictions.
Correct:D

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NO.7 How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best
performance?
A.Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B.Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C.Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D.Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Correct:C

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NO.8 Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A.Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B.After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C.For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D.Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize bandwidth.
Correct:A

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NO.9 In an sx2000 HP Superdome Server, what is the minimum number of DIMMs you need to install
to provide high availability in the memory subsystem?
A.two per cell
B.four per cell
C.eight per cell
D.sixteen per cell
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which HP Superdome servers support the PCI-X I/O chassis? (Select two.)
A.PA-8700
B.PA-8800
C.PA-9000
D.Itanium 2
E.PA-8600
Correct:B D

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NO.11 The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A.two
B.three
C.four
D.five
E.six
Correct:A C

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NO.12 How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is
interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A.nPar commands
B.HP OpenView Operations
C.HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E.These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell boards.
Correct:A C

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NO.13 Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to
set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A.increase performance
B.efficient resource utilization
C.activate spare processor capacity
D.run multiple workloads on one system
E.maximum system uptime and availability
Correct:B D

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NO.14 Which memory configuration does HP recommend for an sx1000 Superdome customer who
wants the most availability?
A.16 DIMMS (eight ranks)
B.32 DIMMS (sixteen ranks)
C.minimum of 4 DIMMS (two ranks)
D.minimum of 8 DIMMS (four ranks)
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which functions does the Support Management Station (SMS) support? (Select two.)
A.activates Instant Capacity (iCAP)
B.displays a log of events for troubleshooting
C.is a console to monitor Superdome servers
D.sets service level objectives (SLOs) for partitions
E.monitors resource usage and allocate resources for partitions
Correct:B C

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NO.16 Which component of Superdome 32-way server is omitted from the Superdome16-way server's
backplane assembly?
A.crossbar links
B.local crossbar communication links
C.cell board connectors for cells 4 through 7
D.cell board connectors for cells 0 through 3
Correct:C

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NO.17 What are the single points of failure in an sx1000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A.I/O chassis
B.sx2000 chipset
C.crossbar backplane
D.power monitor module
E.Management Processor (MP)
Correct:C D

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NO.18 Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select
two.)
A.Tape drive
B.Core I/O card
C.Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D.Card connected to boot media
E.Card connected to removable media
Correct:D E

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NO.19 Which devices does HP recommend for each hard partition? (Select two.)
A.DAT
B.DLT
C.LTO
D.DVD
E.CD-ROM
Correct:A D

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NO.20 How does Global Shared Memory increase the performance of an sx2000 Superdome server?
A.provides a redundant global clock source
B.provides console functionality for each cell in a Superdome server
C.provides direct remote access to the cell through the Management Processor (MP)
D.shifts networking between partitions to the backplane instead of through I/O subsystems
Correct:D

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Exam Code: HP0-J17
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing the HP StorageWorks EVA4400)
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Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where must the multipath software be installed to enable multipathing?
A. on all hosts in the SAN
B. on the storage system
C. on the dedicated management server
D. on all hosts that require multipath access to the EVA
Answer: D

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NO.3 What can you use to provide a Fibre Channel SAN extension over an IP network in an EVA4400 CA
solution?
A. MPX110 IP Distance Gateway
B. IP connector on the controllers
C. only an 8Gb Fibre Channel switch
D. any Fibre Channel switch, provided it has an extended fabric license
Answer: A

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NO.4 When is the first disk group (default disk group) created?
A. after storage system initialization
B. during the initialization of the storage system
C. during the installation of Command View EVA
D. manually, before the system can be initialized
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which user group membership enables the user to access Command View EVA?
A. EVA Admin
B. HP Manager
C. SAN Administrator
D. HP Storage Admin
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is an interconnect requirement for the EVA4400?
A. The SAN switch must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
B. All components in the SAN must run at 4Gb/s.
C. The direct connected switch must run at 4Gb/s.
D. All components in the SAN must run at 2Gb/s or greater.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When can you start to create the first Vdisk using Command View EVA?
A. after a host is created
B. after storage system initialization
C. after multipath software is activated
D. during the storage system initialization
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which SMB customer business needs are best addressed by the EVA4400?
A. growing budgets, high availability, rapid data growth
B. shrinking budgets, disaster tolerance, rapid data growth
C. easy configuration, non-stop performance, growing budgets
D. ease of management, shrinking budgets, non-stop performance
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-M23
Exam Name: HP (HP Business Availability Center Foundation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the meaning of the origin attribute that exists in each CI?
A.the BAC user that created the CI
B.the view in which the CI was created
C.the package from which the CIT was deployed
D.the data source or user that added the CI to the CMDB
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 How would you create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor when defining a
profile?
A.Use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process.
B.Use the Monitor Deployment Wizard to automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI.
C.Create a profile and use the attach CI option in the EUM Administration profile creation operation.
D.Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach the
monitor from within the view
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 Which alert type can be configured to alert on a specific page, or screen, of a monitored application?
A.SLA alert
B.Paging alert
C.Sitescope alert
D.Event based alert
ANSWER: D

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NO.4 How do you navigate the user interface to enter a license in BAC?
A.Navigate to Admin>My BAC>License Management and enter a new license.
B.Accept the basic, built-in factory license as part of the installation phase of BAC.
C.Navigate to Help>About HP Business Availability Center>Registration and enter a new license.
D.Navigate to Admin>Platform Administration>Setup and Maintenance>License Management and enter
a new license.
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 How would you check the start-up status of BAC using the HP BAC Server Status?
A.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
B.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
C.on the gateway and the Data Processing server click on Start > Programs > HP BAC > Administration >
HP BAC Server Status
D.on the gateway and the Data Processing server navigate to \bin and activate the
HPBacServerStatus.exe program
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the session analyzer report?
A.to correlate between sessions, session groups and session users
B.to display user session data for applications configured for real user monitoring
C.to show the history of all closed sessions which were opened against the application configured
D.to display the status of the users that are currently using the application which is being monitored
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Downloads page?
A.a location from which you can download BAC components
B.a location to which you can download tools for use with BAC
C.links to locations from which you can download BAC add-on monitors
D.a location within the BAC directory structure where you can store downloaded software
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 How can you navigate to the web interface of a data collector (for example, BPM, Sitescope or RUM
Engine) without knowing its explicit name or IP address?
A.Write a query on the UCMDB to locate the data collector name and IP address in order to access it.
B.Navigate to "Admin>Platform>Data Collection>Data Collector Maintenance" and select the appropriate
tab.
C.Navigate to "Admin>End User Management Administration>Monitor" and locate the BPM you have just
installed.
D.Navigate to "Admin>Universal CMDB Administration>Source Manager" and edit the data collector
adapter to list all appropriate data collectors.
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 What is the main function of the Report Repository?
A.store reports imported from other applications
B.store reports saved by users at a specific state
C.store reports saved by users with dynamic state
D.store reports specific to the Dashboard component of BAC
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 How are BPM monitoring locations determined? (Select two.)
A.by distant locations
B.by random selection
C.by high user populations
D.by lowest cost to implement
E.by high return on investment
ANSWER: CE

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NO.11 Business Availability Center is powered by a set of servers that are responsible for facilitating system
management, data handling, reporting, and alerting. Which servers are included within the Business
Availability Center basic framework? (Select two.)
A.Print Server
B.Data Server
C.Gateway Server
D.Discovery Server
E.Application Server
F.Data Processing Server
ANSWER: CF

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NO.12 What types of System Health are available?
A.only the BAC built-in System Health is available
B.Operations Center System Health and BAC built-in System Health
C.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Sitescope
D.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Real User Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.13 What information does the Status Snapshot Report provide?
A.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
B.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
C.worst availability by transaction, worst availability by location, worst availability by application, slowest
applications
D.worst response time by transaction, worst response time by location, worst response time by
application, slowest applications
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 Which report types are available in the End User Management application?
A.Summary, Alerts, System Availability
B.User Defined, Business Process, Real User
C.Alerts, Network & Tools, Service Level, Business Process
D.Summary, Business Process, Real User, Status Snapshot
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 What is a context in Infrastructure Settings?
A.the source application that triggers a set of alarms
B.a group of foundations to which the same settings can be applied
C.a group of applications to which the same settings can be applied
D.an aid to separate all BAC configurable items into applications and foundations
ANSWER: D

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NO.16 In a typical organization, who manages the troubleshooting of IT infrastructure?
A.BAC Administrator
B.IT Service Manager
C.Application Manager
D.Operations Engineer
ANSWER: D

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NO.17 What does the data collector maintenance page in the Business Availability Center platform enable
you to do?
A.remotely install Sitescope instances on specific servers.
B.manage and maintain Sitescope, Business Process Monitor, and RUM
C.remotely install, manage and troubleshoot the operation of the Discovery Probe
D.manage and install Business Process Monitor and Real User Monitor probe instances on specific
servers
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 What is the purpose of Infrastructure Settings?
A.to configure the hardware settings of the BAC servers
B.to configure the look and feel of the BAC graphical user interface
C.to define the various settings which determine how BAC and its applications run
D.to configure the binding between BAC and the network interfaces on the BAC servers
ANSWER: C

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NO.19 Which log files are used for troubleshooting SiteScope?
A.Alert, Error and Topaz_all.ejb
B.Run Monitor, HP BAC and Operator
C.Run Monitor, SiteScope_all and Operator
D.Topaz_all.ejb, NannyStatus and Jboss_boot
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 What is the role of the built-in BAC System Health?
A.display in a dashboard view the status of all BAC components
B.measure BAC performance and display BAC resources consumption and usage
C.display in a graphical form all the components of BAC and the relationship between them
D.detect problems with data collectors, BAC database, and the servers on which BAC runs
ANSWER: B

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