显示标签为“CGEIT”的博文。显示所有博文
显示标签为“CGEIT”的博文。显示所有博文

2014年4月30日星期三

CISM 練習問題、CGEIT 試験過去問、CISA 参考書勉強

JPexamがISACAのCISMのサンプルの問題のダウンロードを提供して、あなはリスクフリーの購入のプロセスを体験することができます。これは試用の練習問題で、あなたにインタフェースの友好、問題の質と購入する前の価値を見せます。弊社はJPexamのISACAのCISMのサンプルは製品の性質を確かめるに足りて、あなたに満足させると信じております。あなたの権利と利益を保障するために、JPexamは一回で合格しなかったら、全額で返金することを約束します。弊社の目的はあなたが試験に合格することに助けを差し上げるだけでなく、あなたが本物のIT認証の専門家になることを願っています。あなたが仕事を求める競争力を高めて、自分の技術レベルに合わせている技術職を取って、気楽にホワイトカラー労働者になって高い給料を取ることをお祈りします。

もし君がISACAのCGEITに参加すれば、良い学習のツルを選ぶすべきです。ISACAのCGEIT認定試験はIT業界の中でとても重要な認証試験で、合格するために良い訓練方法で準備をしなければなりません。。

弊社の商品は試験の範囲を広くカバーすることが他のサイトがなかなか及ばならないです。それほかに品質はもっと高くてISACAのCISA認定試験の受験生が最良の選択であり、成功の最高の保障でございます。

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試験科目:Certified Information Security Manager
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CGEIT試験番号:CGEIT問題集
試験科目:ISACA CGEIT Certification Practice Test
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CISA試験番号:CISA問題集
試験科目:Isaca CISA
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ISACAのCISA認定試験に関連する知識を学んで自分のスキルを向上させ、CISA認証資格を通して他人の認可を得たいですか。ISACAの認定試験はあなたが自分自身のレベルを高めることができます。CISA認定試験の資格を取ったら、あなたがより良く仕事をすることができます。この試験が非常に困難ですが、実は試験の準備時に一生懸命である必要はありません。JPexamのCISA問題集を利用してから、一回で試験に合格することができるだけでなく、試験に必要な技能を身につけることもできます。

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NO.1 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.2 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.3 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

NO.4 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.5 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

NO.6 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.7 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.8 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

2013年10月8日星期二

Exam CGEIT questions and answers

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NO.1 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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NO.4 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.6 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.8 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.9 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

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NO.10 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.15 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are
worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk
identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly
identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow
participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.17 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.18 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.22 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

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NO.23 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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NO.24 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.26 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.29 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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NO.30 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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