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Exam Code: CISA
Exam Name: ISACA (Isaca CISA )
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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.
NO.2 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.
NO.3 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.
NO.4 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.
NO.5 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.
NO.6 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.
NO.7 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.
NO.8 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.
NO.9 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.
NO.10 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.
NO.11 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.
NO.12 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.
NO.13 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.
NO.14 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.
NO.15 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.
NO.16 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D
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Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.
NO.17 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.
NO.18 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D
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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.
NO.19 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.
NO.20 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.
NO.21 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.
NO.22 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D
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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.
NO.23 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D
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Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.
NO.24 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.
NO.25 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.
NO.26 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.
NO.27 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D
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Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.
NO.28 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A
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Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.
NO.29 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.
NO.30 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)
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